Avoir indicative

Question

Hi,in the sentence "He's jealous that we're successful ' which translates to " il est jalouse que nous ayons de succès", the ayons is indicative but why is it not avons and if the indicative is different than the present tense form, how should I know and it's not in the Lawless verb tables.Appologies in advance if these are dumb questions.

Maarten Kamp · Accepted Answer

John, 
‘ ayons ‘ is the subjunctive form in the sentence you wrote. The verb conjugation takes the same spelling in the imperative, but this is clearly not a command or imperative statement.
Without context, the sentence is an expression of opinion with doubt about someone else’s emotional state and the reason for it.
It is not in the indicative, and is not a typo. 
https://www.lawlessfrench.com/verb-conjugations/avoir/
 https://progress.lawlessfrench.com/revision/glossary/mood/the-french-subjunctive-mood-le-mode-subjonctif-ou-le-subjonctif
 https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/subjunctive/

John Warren · Answer

Thanks Maarten, that's where I was originally but I didn't quite see why it qualified for the subjunctive so I ( perhaps foolishly) asked Gemini and that's where the suggestion it was indicative came from. I very much value your explanation.