Can you explain why passé composé is used to translate 'I didn't have the time before my trip'? I always make this mistake because I think that the speaker means they didn't have the time for an extended period of time and I often think that imparfait should be used in those cases.
Freeform Writing Exercise A2
There is a defined end to the action, that is up to the point the trip commences.
Prior to that "not having the time" is a completed action and subsequently (when the trip starts) then is over and done with.
This is how I justify passé composé.
Hope this helps
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