Passé simple of falloir.

Question

I needed to use falloir in the passé simple (don't ask lol) - the verb conjugation tables in Lawless say that it's il faillit, but other sources say it's il fallut. The latter seems more logical given that the past participle is fallu - but which is correct? Or is there a typo in the conjugation tables.,

Anne Davies · Answer

I’m sure you’re right, it should be fallut. Lawless seems to give il fallit, which doesn’t look right.Anyway if il fallut is good enough for the Académie Française… https://www.dictionnaire-academie.fr/conjuguer/A9F0145

Edit: I’ve just realised that you can go right back to the 1694 dictionary on that website by clicking on the facsimile page!

Jim Luetchford · Answer

Merci Anne - c'est gentil !

(And, oh dear, what a trou de lapin you have introduced me to ! I shall waste hours looking at the days when Être was still spelt "estre", and the terminaisions of the imparfait were -ois not -ais - and all kinds of fascinating stuff like that....)