"For lying" and "for having lied"?
Gruff
Kwiziq language super star
13/04/17
In this context the two forms can be used interchangeably in English without changing the sense in most cases, but you can't use use the gerund form (for +-ing) the same way in in this sort of sentence in French. Does that answer your question?
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Johnny
Kwiziq community member
12 April 2017
1 reply
"For lying" and "for having lied"?
I guess this is more of an English question. What is the difference between "for lying" and "for having lied"?
This question relates to:
French lesson "Pour avoir fait = Cause for doing (simple expression)"