Il m'a laissé tomber

Question

The storyteller is a woman.  So, why isn't it "Il m'a laissée tomber"?  The direct object is a woman (feminine) and it appears before avoir in the passé composé.

Accepted Answer

Merci, Sean,  d'avoir attiré notre attention sur cette faute d'inattention qui est maintenant corrigée.

Answer

I also believe it should be laissée.

Answer

But isn't the direct object tomber in this case? There shouldn't be an agreement.https://www.carleton.edu/french/resources/language-tools/grammar/agreement_pastparticiple/In certain expressions, such as faire + infinitive, laisser +infinitive, se rendre compte, and others, the place of the direct object is held by an infinitive or other complement, which will always follow the principal verb. In these expressions no agreement is usually made.

Answer

Alan, I think that is referring to when a direct object, not its pronoun, is used.  But I’m not sure.  If your grammar site is right then I’m really confused.

Answer

More here:http://bdl.oqlf.gouv.qc.ca/bdl/gabarit_bdl.asp?t1=1&id=1711I suppose if the person dropped is considered the subject of the verb tomber, this means that the agreement is correct, although the final paragraph suggests that it has become admissable not to make it. In fact, this is now recommended by the Académie française.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reforms_of_French_orthography#Past_participle_agreement

Answer

That’s even more confusing because it sounds like it could go either way

Answer

I edited my answer to clarify it after you posted your last reply. But I think you're right, effectively it's now optional.

Answer

Thank you for your contribution, chaps, it looks as though both are accepted.
I personally believe that the agreement will cause less problems to learners as these grammarians' arguments are quite illogical in this case.
Hope you agree!