Hunting through the comments, it appears there was a change mentioned 11 months ago, but Joseph's answer was not actually included and I wonder if the general grammar rule may have been deleted when the exception about Indicatif was added?
Celine's answer to John 3 years ago has some explanation of present tense vs. passé composé, but there is nothing like this in the actual lesson itself.
I stopped reading halfway through the many comments as it appears many other users have also previously felt the lesson did not have an adequate explanation...