Question around accordance of past participle and avoir

VivieneC1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Question around accordance of past participle and avoir

Why is it "il m'avait même donnée" when there is not a direct feminine object of the verb donner in front of it? 

Asked 3 months ago
GabrielleC1Kwiziq community member

In this case, I believe that it is because there is agreement with the direct object pronoun when using passé composé, and the "me" (m'avait) is female, per the voice-over.

VivieneC1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Yes, I agree that m' refers to female but she is an indirect object of verb donner: il avait donnée .... à elle (I know that is bad grammar in French but it is just to show that the m' is an indirect as opposed to direct object)

Question around accordance of past participle and avoir

Why is it "il m'avait même donnée" when there is not a direct feminine object of the verb donner in front of it? 

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