weekend writing challenge: question about past participle agreement
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Ron
Kwiziq community member
17/08/17
Bonjour Cheryl,
I believe that the answer lies in the fact that the husband made the purchase, hence no second -e. Is it possible that you are confusing the agreement in subordinate clauses with this lesson?
Bonne chance,
Cheryl
Kwiziq community member
18/08/17
- bien sûr, c'est ça! .. merci
Aurélie
Kwiziq language super star
23/08/17
Bonjour Cheryl !
The reason why the agreement doesn't take place here is that in French you say acheter [quelque chose] à [quelqu'un] (lit. to buy [something] to [someone]), so here m' is an indirect object pronoun and not a direct object pronoun, hence the rule doesn't apply :)
I hope that's helpful!
À bientôt !
The reason why the agreement doesn't take place here is that in French you say acheter [quelque chose] à [quelqu'un] (lit. to buy [something] to [someone]), so here m' is an indirect object pronoun and not a direct object pronoun, hence the rule doesn't apply :)
I hope that's helpful!
À bientôt !
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Cheryl
Kwiziq community member
15 August 2017
3 replies
weekend writing challenge: question about past participle agreement
Bonjour!, Why didn't the correct answer have an extra "e" on the past participle in the following sentence please, when there is a direct pronoun "me" before the auxillary verb: "mon mari m’avait acheté une belle édition de la pièce d’Oscar Wilde “Salomé”, (mon mari m'avait achetée...?) (assumed that the writer is a woman as she speaks of her husband, & in fact we're later told that the writer is a woman). Cheryl