Using 'depuis' (since / for) with Le Présent and NOT Le Passé Composé (prepositions of time)

This might look like a passé composé on first inspection but it actually is present tense passive voice.

ah yes, I see now! I thought it was se marier at first. ok that makes sense now, but I wonder if a specific example should be included or if another tense/voice should be mixed in the example as it is confusing. I’m going in order from A0 onward and haven’t encountered a lesson on passive voice

Hi judy,

The simple answer is no.

Take a look at the following lesson on how to use 'il y a' meaning 'ago'.

https://french.kwiziq.com/revision/grammar/expressions-of-time-il-y-a-duration-ago

Hope this helps!

Hi William,

I think you may be confusing the usage and depuis and puisque which both can be translated in English as since, but with different meanings:

Depuis (preposition) since, a marker in time ,  puisque, (conjunction) since, because

So your sentence would become :

Puisque je reste à Lyon avec ses parents, mon ami vit dans mon appartement à Glasgow.

Yes, there is no reason why you cannot start the sentence with  puisque.

I apologise if I have misunderstood the meaning of your question.

Pendant, in this context, refers to a well defined period in the past. Therefore I would say:

J'ai étudié  le français pendant deux ans.

I don't think there is a rule forbidding the use of imparfait in conjunction with pendant. It's just that in this example, I would use the passé composé.

The opinion of a native speaker would be greatly appreciated, though.

Hi L,

No,  you cannot say,  'J'étudiais le français pendant deux ans.' as it lasted two years in now finished, the only possibility is-

'J'ai étudié le français pendant deux ans.'

Hi Sagar,

s'habillaient is the imperfect, se sont habillés would be passé composé. 

-- Chris. 

Hi Sagar,

You can only use the imperfect ( imparfait) here as it describes something people did (used to do) in the past.

It is not a question of agreement, as the s'habillaient is in the third person plural (they) it is just the tense that is wrong.

Look at the lesson below for further understanding:

Expressing habits or repeated actions in L'Imparfait (imperfect tense)

Hope this helps!

Thank you, Cécile and Chris.

I understand now. It really comes down to the idea that l'imparfait should be used when describing an ongoing action in the past. I was under the impression that l'imparfait was only required for the first part of the answer ("j'etais"), while the passé composé could be used for the second part.

It's clear now. Thank you so much.

I love Lawless French.

Hi Melanie, I think I understand your confusion.

Remember that in English, "have" is an auxiliary verb in sentences like "I have been" (this tense is called the present perfect in English, and is composed of a present tense conjugation of "to have" + the past participle of the verb, which in this case is "to be" - this structure is very similar to Le Passé Composé).

Now, when we use "depuis" to express "since" or "for" in French, we use it with the present tense. In constrast, in English, we use the present perfect.

So, "être avec" (to be with someone) in the present tense is "Je suis avec". In the English equivalent, "have" appears because we need to transpose the tense to the present perfect and so it becomes "I have been". You see than "to be" is still there but it's become the past participle in English, and have is just the usual auxiliary verb that's always part of that tense. I hope that makes sense?