I'm still confused about why "Nous nous habillions à 6 heures et demie", "We got dressed at half past 6", is imparfait and not passe compose. This seems to be one specific event (not describing a repeated action), is complete, has a clear beginning (6:30), and isn't an opinion or (I don't think) story background. What rule would I use to know it's imparfait?
The English sentence could also refer to a repeated action, e.g.
"Every day we had the same routine. We got dressed at half past 6. etc. "
I remember reading that we use the imparfait if another past action interrupts it So, in English we might say: We were getting dressed at 6:30 when you called.
The French sentence isn’t trying to replicate the English - it indicates an habitual activity. It is, as Alan notes, one way in English to represent the French but does not convey the full meaning.
If you were translating from the English to the French, you are correct that either imparfait or passé composé could be used, and which is best depends on context.
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