Subordinate clause with que

Question

J'ai joui les fraises que Maman a cueillies. is correct since the que refers back to the fraises

Je les ai jois (s?) que Maman a cueillie(s?) How does it work here, where you have the fraises referenced by the les before the ai? Do both of these need to agree?

Accepted Answer

Hi everyone,
I would be interested to know where this example came from as in the lesson the verb used 'aimer' is used in the context of strawberries.
The verb 'jouir' in French has sexual connotations and is best avoided to mean 'to enjoy'.
apprécier , trouver agréable, prendre plaisir are much safer verbs to use to mean to enjoy as in to relish.
Hope this helps!

Answer

It works the same way as in the first example: que refers to les fraises and therefore it is again cueillies.

Answer

I don't think your second example is allowed - que has to refer back to a noun, not a pronoun. You would have to replace the whole phrase "les fraises que Maman a cueillies" with a pronoun. Also, I think jouir has to be followed by de, so the first example should be "j'ai joui des fraises que ...." and the second example would then be "J'en ai joui."  No agreement, because it's an indirect object.