Why does the past participle of the reflexive se faire not agree in this case?

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Bonjour Ann,  This is the lesson on the causative: https://french.kwiziq.com/my-languages/french/view/4617 I've asked Aurélie to add a note to that effect.

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I believe it is because "fait" doesn't exist as "faite" or "faites", It appears to be immutable.. Apparently only the PP that end on é are matched in number and gender, as in: "Anne s'est douchée". I am not a native speaker, though.

-- Chris.

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Merci. I think I have found the answer - " In certain expressions, such as faire + infinitive, laisser +infinitive, se rendre compte, and others, the place of the direct object is held by an infinitive or other complement, which will always follow the principal verb. In these expressions no agreement is usually made".

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Claus - that's not true at all. All past participles are subject to agreement, no matter what letter they end in. For example, la tarte que j'ai faite est délicieuse, les livres que tu as vendus sont intéressants, etc.

Ann - that's correct, it's because this is the causative construction.

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Merci
In the example "la tarte que j'ai faite est delicieuse" the past participle in this case agrees with the noun (la tarte - the object of the sentence) (even though it is an avoir, not etre, construction) because it PRECEDES the participle. On the other hand "J'ai fait la tarte does not agree because la tarte (the object )comes after the participle. Merci  Laura and Claus. Laura please can you explain the causative construction, which i'm sure is a better way of explaining this grammar point?

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Faire virer de l’argent implies to me that the person concerned was having someone send money on his behalf to someone else whereas I am presuming  (as a parent!) that the subject of the sentence was having money sent TO him.  How can one distinguish between the two meanings? I would have used ‘il se. fait virer del’argent’. I presume I would be wrong