Why does the past participle of the reflexive se faire not agree in this case?
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AnnKwiziq community member
Why does the past participle of the reflexive se faire not agree in this case?
This question relates to:French lesson "Faire + L'Infinitif = to have something done (causative)"
Asked 4 years ago
Chris Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
I believe it is because "fait" doesn't exist as "faite" or "faites", It appears to be immutable.. Apparently only the PP that end on é are matched in number and gender, as in: "Anne s'est douchée". I am not a native speaker, though.
-- Chris.
AnnKwiziq community member
Merci. I think I have found the answer - " In certain expressions, such as faire + infinitive, laisser +infinitive, se rendre compte, and others, the place of the direct object is held by an infinitive or other complement, which will always follow the principal verb. In these expressions no agreement is usually made".
LauraKwiziq team member
Claus - that's not true at all. All past participles are subject to agreement, no matter what letter they end in. For example, la tarte que j'ai faite est délicieuse, les livres que tu as vendus sont intéressants, etc.
Ann - that's correct, it's because this is the causative construction.
AnnKwiziq community member
Merci
In the example "la tarte que j'ai faite est delicieuse" the past participle in this case agrees with the noun (la tarte - the object of the sentence) (even though it is an avoir, not etre, construction) because it PRECEDES the participle. On the other hand "J'ai fait la tarte does not agree because la tarte (the object )comes after the participle. Merci Laura and Claus. Laura please can you explain the causative construction, which i'm sure is a better way of explaining this grammar point?
LauraKwiziq team member
Bonjour Ann,
This is the lesson on the causative: Faire + L'Infinitif = to have something done (causative) I've asked Aurélie to add a note to that effect.
IanKwiziq community member
Faire virer de l’argent implies to me that the person concerned was having someone send money on his behalf to someone else whereas I am presuming (as a parent!) that the subject of the sentence was having money sent TO him. How can one distinguish between the two meanings? I would have used ‘il se. fait virer del’argent’. I presume I would be wrong
Ann asked:View original
Why does the past participle of the reflexive se faire not agree in this case?
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