I understand that avant que requires the subjunctive. Given that the first part of the sentence is in the pluperfect, why is the present subjunctive used rather than past subjunctive? His arrival is in the past, just not as far in the past as the homework.
Plus-que-parfait in French is the direct equivalent of the Pluperfect in English. It could be described as the past of the past:
When I had finished my homework, I went for a walk.
Of course, English speakers are likely to make contractions: I'd finished, etc.
Look at these examples of Plus-que-parfait:
Plus-que-parfait follows this construction, which is similar to the Pluperfect in English (had +-ed):
Reminder of avoir in Imparfait
j'avais
tu avais
il avait
nous avions
vous aviez
ils avaient
Learn more about these related French grammar topics
Examples and resources
Nous avions pris nos places en avance mais nous n'avons pas pu y aller au final.We had booked our tickets in advance but we couldn't go in the end.
Avais-tu pris ton appareil photo quand tu es allé en vacances ?Had you taken your camera when you went on holidays?
Aviez-vous jamais voulu être actrice avant de décrocher ce rôle ?Had you ever wanted to be an actress before getting that role?
avoir
être
faire
prendre
vouloir
Q&A Forum 6 questions, 13 answers
Hi Heather,
In fact, you will hear both in French.
In everyday spoken language, you will even drop the 'ne' -
Il avait fait ses devoirs avant qu'il arrive
But you could say -
Il avait fait ses devoirs avant qu'il (ne) soit arrivé
which is more formal,
or even in written form and very elevated language :
Il avait fait ses devoirs avant qu'il (ne) fût arrivé ( subjunctive pluperfect)
The important bit is to use the subjunctive.
Hope this helps!
Alan Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
In general the past subjunctive is only used when the action in the subordinate (i.e. subjunctive) clause precedes the main clause. It's the relationship to the main clause that is important, not whether it's in the past now. In the case of "avant que" , the main clause, by definition, must precede the subordinate clause, so I thought at first you would never use the past subjunctive.
But it turns out you can use it with "avant que", so its meaning here is a bit different. It seems that the choice of present or past subjunctive is more nuanced - you use the past subjunctive to indicate that the action is completed. This makes more sense with an action which takes some time to complete, for example:
Avant que nous mangions, nous étions à jeun. (i.e. as soon as we start eating we stop fasting)
Avant que nous ayons mangé, nous avions faim. (i.e. once we've finished eating we stop being hungry)
So if you think of arriving as instantaneous, then you probably wouldn't use the past subjunctive in your example. (Maybe it's still allowable to use it - I'm not sure - but it would be unnecessary.)
Heather asked:View original
Elle avait fait ses devoirs avant qu’il n’arrive.
I understand that avant que requires the subjunctive. Given that the first part of the sentence is in the pluperfect, why is the present subjunctive used rather than past subjunctive? His arrival is in the past, just not as far in the past as the homework.
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MuratKwiziq community member
bonjour!.
"Ils avaient fait..."
"Il avait fait..."
These two sentences sound same. Is there a way that we can understand the correct sujet?
Asked 1 year ago
Actually Murat, they do sound different as the first one ils (plural) will have a -z sound which is a mandatory liaison , sounding -
Il Z avaient fait
The second example il ( singular) has no ‘s’ so will sound -
I Lavait fait
Hope this helps!
Murat asked:View original
bonjour!.
"Ils avaient fait..."
"Il avait fait..."
These two sentences sound same. Is there a way that we can understand the correct sujet?
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HelenKwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Isn't the second half of this sentence conditional?
Here's the sentence that you wrote: Nous avions pris nos places en avance mais nous n'avons pas pu y aller au final." Stated translation was: "We had taken our seats in advance but we could not go in the end." Wouldn't we use the conditional for the second half of that sentence: "...nous ne pourions pas y aller au final."
Asked 2 years ago
I think you are confusing the double meaning of "could" in the English language. "Could" is either the imperfect of "can" or the conditional of can. In the example above, "...we could not go there..." the word "could" is NOT conditional but the imperfect. Therefore the use of the conditional in French is incorrect. You need the passé composé : nous n'avons pas pu (= we were not able to ...)
-- Chris (not a native speaker).
-- Chris (not a native speaker).
Ron Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
Bonjour Helen,
I think that you may be onto something with your question: here is how I would have stated it --> Nous avions pris nos places à l’avance, mais nous ne pourrions pas aller au final. The thing to keep in mind with this lesson is this: it is about the plus-que-parfait and not le conditionnel.
The issue that I have with the phrase is this, I would have used the verb «acheter» --> Nous avions acheté nos places à l'avance . . . the reason being that we had our ticket in advance but were unable to attend. prendre nos places, to me, has the sense that we went to the venue before the show began. Perhaps this is a French locution, prendre nos places, that I have not heard of before.
J'espère que ma réponse vous aiderait.
Bonne chance et bonne continuation dans vos études en français, la langue de Molière et qui a été utilisé par le monde français depuis l’époque d’Hugues Capet
AurélieKwiziq team member
Bonjour à tous !
Yes, here the expression "prendre ses places" in French means "to buy/book one's tickets" :)
I've now amended the EN in the example to make it clearer!
Bonne journée !
Helen asked:View original
Isn't the second half of this sentence conditional?
Here's the sentence that you wrote: Nous avions pris nos places en avance mais nous n'avons pas pu y aller au final." Stated translation was: "We had taken our seats in advance but we could not go in the end." Wouldn't we use the conditional for the second half of that sentence: "...nous ne pourions pas y aller au final."
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JenniferKwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Si tu avais été plus petit, tu aurais pu être jockey.
why is it not si tu aurais été plus petit in this example , as it seems more conditional than past?
Asked 2 years ago
AurélieKwiziq team member
Bonjour Jennifer !
When you express an hypothesis with an "if" clause, the verb following "if" is in the Simple Past, not Conditional:
"If I *bought* a house, I would be happy."
You don't say "If I *would buy* a house..."
It's the same in French, where we use L'Imparfait after "si":
"Si j'*achetais* une maison, je serais heureux."
See the related lesson:
Using L'Imparfait in hypothetical clauses introduced by si (if) + Le Conditionnel Présent
I hope that's helpful!
À bientôt !
Chris Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
The case at hand deals with the past and therefore it uses the plusqueparfai in the main clause and the conditionel passé in the si-clause: If I HAD BEEN smaller I COULD HAVE BEEN a jockey.
With the imperfect in the main clause and the conditionel présent in the si-clause it translates as: If I WERE smaller I WOULD BE a jockey.
This is actually completely parallel to English.
-- Chris.
Jennifer asked:View original
Si tu avais été plus petit, tu aurais pu être jockey.
why is it not si tu aurais été plus petit in this example , as it seems more conditional than past?
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StevenKwiziq community member
Pourquoi explétif ne dans "Elle avait fait ses devoirs avant qu'il n'arrive." Merci.
Asked 3 years ago
Bonjour Steven !
The expression "avant que" is always followed by the "ne explétif".
Have a look at the related lesson: Avant que + ne explétif + Le Subjonctif = Before I do">Avant que + ne explétif + Le Subjonctif = Before I do">Avant que + ne explétif + Le Subjonctif = Before I do">Avant que + ne explétif + Le Subjonctif = Before I do
I hope that's helpful! À bientôt !
The expression "avant que" is always followed by the "ne explétif".
Have a look at the related lesson: Avant que + ne explétif + Le Subjonctif = Before I do">Avant que + ne explétif + Le Subjonctif = Before I do">Avant que + ne explétif + Le Subjonctif = Before I do">Avant que + ne explétif + Le Subjonctif = Before I do
I hope that's helpful! À bientôt !
Steven asked:View original
Pourquoi explétif ne dans "Elle avait fait ses devoirs avant qu'il n'arrive." Merci.
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JenniferKwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Agreement of froid
Why is it not nous avions eu froids instead of nous avions eu froid. Is froid not an adjective here? In so many of the other examples there is agreement. What is the difference?
Asked 3 years ago
LauraKwiziq team member
Bonjour Jennifer,
No, froid is a noun in French, even though it's an adjective in English. That's why we say "avoir froid" (literally, "to have cold") rather than using être.
Jennifer asked:View original
Agreement of froid
Why is it not nous avions eu froids instead of nous avions eu froid. Is froid not an adjective here? In so many of the other examples there is agreement. What is the difference?
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