Question about "De tous les mensonges que tu as dit, aucun n'est crédible"Translated as: "Out of all the lies you told, none is believable."
Is this French example used simply to illustrate French grammar?
Because as a statement of logic, the statement is nonsense. The second half of the statement is superfluous. Lies are ipso facto not credible (that is the nature of a lie). So of course 100% of the time they are not credible.
As an analogy, no one would say: "Out of all the green marbles you gave me, none is orange."
If instead you said: "Out of all the statements you told, none is believable" (or correct in French: "De tous les choses que tu as dit, aucun n'est crédible"?) or "Out of all the marbles you gave me, none is orange", these full sentences have logical meaning.
not necessarily overly friendly, would one still use the subjunctive?
Translated as: "Out of all the lies you told, none is believable."
Is this French example used simply to illustrate French grammar?
Because as a statement of logic, the statement is nonsense. The second half of the statement is superfluous. Lies are ipso facto not credible (that is the nature of a lie). So of course 100% of the time they are not credible.
As an analogy, no one would say: "Out of all the green marbles you gave me, none is orange."
If instead you said: "Out of all the statements you told, none is believable" (or correct in French: "De tous les choses que tu as dit, aucun n'est crédible"?) or "Out of all the marbles you gave me, none is orange", these full sentences have logical meaning.
Somehow, I thought we always use "de" before a plural noun preceded by an adjective?
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