Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone.

Bold M.C1Kwiziq community member

Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone.

Hello,

I am having trouble understanding why "Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone." is the correct orthography.

Bescherelle explains that there are three cases (https://www.bescherelle.com/faq/comment-accorder-le-participe-passe-dun-verbe-pronominal/):

1. Lorsque le verbe est essentiellement pronominal (c’est-à-dire qu’il se construit toujours avec un pronom réfléchi), le participe passé s’accorde avec le sujet.

2. Lorsque le verbe est occasionnellement pronominal, le participe passé s’accorde avec le COD si celui-ci est placé avant le verbe.

3. Il ne s’accorde pas s’il n’y a pas de COD ou si celui-ci est placé après le verbe.

Obviously case 1 does not apply because parler normally takes a direct object. But everyone seems to put "Ils se sont parlé" into case three. How is "se" not the direct object? They're talking to each other. Why is it "Ils se sont brûlés." but "Ils se sont parlé."? These two seem like they should be in the same category to me. Is it just that "se parler" is a special case, or am I completely misunderstanding?

Sorry if this was already answered somewhere but I haven't found it in my searches if so.

Thank you for your help.

Asked 7 hours ago
CécileKwiziq Native French TeacherCorrect answer

Bonjour Bold,

I am sorry but I can't find this example in this lesson, so may I ask you where you saw this as it looks like a mistake.

The verb -

se parler = to speak to each other 

is truly reciprocal and it should be -

Ils se sont parlés hier soir

parlés agrees with the subject 'ils' masculine, plural 

but if you were talking about two or more female speakers -

Elles se sont parlées hier soir

 

 

Although the verb parler can have an object ( transitive), the verb 'se parler' is reflexive so the agreement is with the subject.

The case of 'se brûler' is interesting as it normally means to get burnt ( to burn oneself), so reflexive as the subject acts upon themselves as in this example - 

Ils se sont brûlés 

or 

Elles se sont brûlées 

for they got burnt.

But 'se brûler' can have an object as in the case of -

Il s'est brû la main = He burnt his hand 

No agreement as the object if after the verb 

Hope this helps!

 

 

Alan G.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

I think the point is that the reflexive pronoun is a COI, not a COD. They're talking to each other.

https://www.lefigaro.fr/langue-francaise/expressions-francaises/2017/07/29/37003-20170729ARTFIG00001-ils-se-sont-parles-ne-faites-plus-la-faute.php

Bold M.C1Kwiziq community member

Ah I think I might have finally understood thanks to your hint Alan. Someone in the comments of that article dropped this:

>"J'ai appris" suffira.
>Elles ont parlé à elles-mêmes : se = COI, donc : elles se sont parlé.
>Elles ont vu elles-mêmes : se = COD, donc elles se sont vues.
>Tout juste.

Written out like that it makes sense and this agrees with what Bescherelle et al. indicate is the correct form (i.e. "se sont parlé" without an s).

Thanks for your help.

Bold M. asked:

Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone.

Hello,

I am having trouble understanding why "Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone." is the correct orthography.

Bescherelle explains that there are three cases (https://www.bescherelle.com/faq/comment-accorder-le-participe-passe-dun-verbe-pronominal/):

1. Lorsque le verbe est essentiellement pronominal (c’est-à-dire qu’il se construit toujours avec un pronom réfléchi), le participe passé s’accorde avec le sujet.

2. Lorsque le verbe est occasionnellement pronominal, le participe passé s’accorde avec le COD si celui-ci est placé avant le verbe.

3. Il ne s’accorde pas s’il n’y a pas de COD ou si celui-ci est placé après le verbe.

Obviously case 1 does not apply because parler normally takes a direct object. But everyone seems to put "Ils se sont parlé" into case three. How is "se" not the direct object? They're talking to each other. Why is it "Ils se sont brûlés." but "Ils se sont parlé."? These two seem like they should be in the same category to me. Is it just that "se parler" is a special case, or am I completely misunderstanding?

Sorry if this was already answered somewhere but I haven't found it in my searches if so.

Thank you for your help.

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