Bonjour Tom !
Ok, I completely agree that this example is confusing at best :)
The explanation is that here we're talking about flavours (ice cream, yoghurt...), which in French is masculine = un parfum.
Therefore, it's my humble opinion that that's why we use the masculine here, but I agree that it looks so illogical to non-French natives!
I've decided to rephrase this example, to make the antecedent clearer.
I hope that's helpful!Bonne journée !
I have read this thread attentively and am none the wiser as regards the fraise/vanille problème.
To quote Ron:
Note that l'un/l'une agrees in gender with the object it refers to.Ni l'un/e ni l'autre can also be used on its own to express neither:Tu veux fraise ou vanille? - Ni l'un ni l'autre.Do you want strawberry or vanilla? - Neither.
Surely since frais/vanille has already been referenced the only valid reply in this case should be "ni l'une ni l'autre"
Am I not understanding properly?
Just stumbled over your question and I can confirm that it should be -
Ni l'une, ni l'autre ( for - ni fraise, ni vanille)
Mieux vaut tard que jamais !
Sign in to submit your answer
Don't have an account yet? Join today
Test your French to the CEFR standard