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13,785 questions • 29,627 answers • 846,057 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
13,785 questions • 29,627 answers • 846,057 learners
In the text the 'e' at the end of 'carte' seems to be pronounced. If so could you please explain why this is, as the next word 'bleue' starts with a consonant and not a vowel (which then normally requires the liaison). Thank you.
Hello: Please, could someone tell me the difference in usage between "ou" and "où." I'm tripped up once again by the diacritical marks.
Thank you in advance to all kind and patient souls.
Cheers!
Kalpana
Does French follow the same linking verb + adjective convention as in English? Linking verbs, which include "to feel", link the subject and the predicate so are followed by adjectives, not adverbs. In the kwiz, there was "Je me sens mieux." I feel better. Of course, "feel" can be a transitive verb also as in "feel an object," so a person can feel (it) better, in which case "better" is an adverb.
When you keep your normal statement followed by quoi at the end
-Tu fais quoi?
Can you replace it with comment
-Tu fais comment?
In the sentence: donc je me suis baignée tous les jours.
I used imparfait, since it is an ongoing activity - every day - and Juliette is describing what she is doing.
donc je me baignais tous les jours.
Why is passé composé being used here?
Why is
grandes quilles de bois acceptable but not grande boule de bois?
In the second example ‘grande’ is corrected to ‘grosse’.
Both are describing ‘big’ as in:
-eight big wooden skittles
-a big wooden ball
This was possibly the most difficult C1 exercise that I have tackled. Nevertheless, I tried it. I scored myself at 40 out of 70. It simply points out how far I have to go. Thanks for the challenge.
Elderly Brit here. I would use the English past perfect in both halves of a sentence like "By the time I had finished eating, he had drunk a whole bottle" - when he’s drunk the bottle, I’ve already finished eating, a completed action.
Without wanting to split hairs, is the concept of the French "le temps que" slightly different to "by the time that" or does it just take (to my mind!) a less logical tense?
Here is the phrase: "Enfin, j'arrive sur la Grand-Place et je retrouve mon frere a cote de la fontaine."
Note: "La Grand-Place" was given as the hint for this sentence, otherwise I might have written, "la Grande-Place", (even though the pronunciation is "grand" and not "grande").
Does anyone know why " la Grand-Place", rather than "la Grande-Place" since "la place" is feminine ?
Merci beaucoup !
There is something odd about this question and about the claimed correct answer. You pose the question using the 'old' form of the verb (s'asseoir) but accept as correct ONLY a response in the 'modern' form (s'assoir). Now I don't have a problem with mixing and matching the 'old' and 'new' forms of the verb, but I think we should be consistent. A question based on the 'old' form of the verb should surely accept as correct a response using the same 'old' form of the verb.
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