Every dictionary I have checked confirms that 'les soldes' is masculine (wheareas 'la vente' is feminine, and 'la solde' has a different meaning). Just about every French person (woman) I have asked is surprised to find this to be the case ! However, I think the exercise should at least reflect/indicate the 'correct' usage:

Perhaps a simple note under the heading of the lesson that although 'les soldes' is officially masculine gender, it is very commonly 'misused' in the feminine, and throughout this lesson the 'colloquial' feminine grammatical gender for 'les soldes' has been used.

Just leaving it incorrect doesn't seem to me to be the best option.

Asked 4 years ago

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Bill A.C1KwizIQ Q&A regular contributor

That day you kept your word - test questionHello, based on the lesson, it would appear that an article or a possessive adjective is either required or at least optional but i was marked incorrect for the answer:

Ce jour-là tu as retenu la parole.

and the only accepted answer was:

Ce jour-là tu as retenu parole.

Could someone advise on why the former is incorrect? Is it idiomatic?

thanks

Asked 7 years ago

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Helen O.A2KwizIQ community member

'En hiver' vs 'L'hiver'.

This explanation doesn't explain why sometimes one says 'L'hiver' and at other times, 'En hiver', and similar for other seasons. The examples given do not enlighten me much. I have always had trouble with this. At first I thought, oh, you use 'l'hiver' when you are going to say something describing a feature of 'hiver', and 'En hiver' when you want to say something happened during 'hiver', but then the other examples given in context of other seasons etc mostly described activities occurring during the season regardless of the 'en' or 'l'' beginning.

I need it stated explicitly what the rule is, there doesn't appear to be one.

Asked 1 year ago

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Joanne H.B2KwizIQ community member

I wrote "faire des magasins."

Is that wrong? Perhaps you can't have two infinitives together? I thought faire des was the way to express going shopping.

Asked 7 years ago

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Belinda V.C1KwizIQ community member

Hi - In the note on the lesson it states that 'None of them are....' is acceptable English, however, this is incorrect grammar.

The correct grammar would be to say: None of them is.... i.e. 'none' is treated as singular and hence the use of 'is' and not 'are'. Thanks again for a fantastic French course!

Asked 7 years ago

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Janet P.C1KwizIQ community member

Fréquemment instead of souvent

Is it OK to use fréquemment instead of souvent?

Asked 3 years ago

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