French language Q&A Forum

Dans la phrase "C'est plus compliqué qu'il n'y paraît.." est-ce que "il n'y parait" est une expression ?

I got this question:

How would you say "You went out even though I wasn't OK with it." ?

And I answered with this:

Tu es sortie bien que je n'étais pas d'accord.

Apparently the right answer was Tu es sortie bien que je ne suis pas d'accord, but I don't understand why je ne suis pas d'accord is in the present tense.

To me that sentence means "You went out even though I'm not OK with it.", as in "I'm not ok with in general", but the way the English sentence is written in the question means that the speaker wasn't ok about a particular going-out. Why would one use the present tense there even though the "not being ok with it" was done in the past?

For des bruits "rigolos," can I use "drôles?"

Are there other verbs who follow this same pattern: ie. they can be conjugated in the past tense using either 'etre' or 'avoir'? The verb that comes to mind is:

'Paraitre'?

Merci

Est-ce qu'on utilise "À partir du premier jour des vacances..." au lieu de "Dès le premier jour des vacances..." dans ce contexte ?  Si non, pourquoi ?

Why do some countries not have an article stated?

Hi, just a little correction, soixante-dix should be at the top of the list :)

Can I use this phrase in situations like, "That's it! I've had enough!" Or would ça suffit be more appropriate here? 

A multiple choice question I got gave me the options of (1) “La porte fait un mètre de large.”, (2) “La porte a un mètre de large.”, (3) “La porte est un mètre de largeur.”, (4) “La porte est large d'un mètre.”. According to the dictionary I use, you can use avoir, too, and it gives the example of “Ce meuble a 45 cm de large.”; however, the quizz insists only (1) and (4) are correct. Who’s right?