French language Q&A Forum

Bonjour,

Above in the explanation, it is mentioned that l'imparfait has no clear beginning or end. But when I attempted the Fill-in-the-blanks  Mon jour férié (Passé Composé vs Imparfait), there was a sentence - J’étais encore en pyjama vers 13h, (which is given as the correct answer). Whereas I had written, " J'ai encore été en pyjama vers 13h, and this answer was given as incorrect. But I don't understand, the end time is given here, (vers 13h). So why can't we select Passé composè?

Merci!

She seized his wrist is translated.."Elle lui saisait le poignet."  Why is the "lui" there?

It says jusqu'à ce que and subjunctive is for until someone does something so for example 'we kissed until his parents arrived'. But could it also apply to 'we talked until it became too late'? So a second part of the sentence not done by someone but a situation without a person and action.

I believe that “I arrived the day he left” refers to a non-specific timeframe and therefore should use the feminine form, but it was marked wrong on my test and the masculine “la jour” was said to be correct instead. Can someone explain to me why this would be the case, or if it’s an error?

Why do some countries not have an article stated?

I noticed that an example given above " Elles ne l'ont fait expres" means They didnt do it on purpose. Im wondering why it isnt Elles n'en ont pas fait expres. Doesn't en replace phrases after de?