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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
15,082 questions • 32,808 answers • 1,050,923 learners
I have it in my notes that “après que” uses the indicative tense, so is there a reason why the subjunctive is used in this occasion ?
I wrote '`a moins que Bruno ne vienne ...' vienne is the correct form of subjunctive and 'ne' is needed after the conjunction '`a moins que'. I have read in lesson notes that the 'ne' can be dropped in a dialogue. However, in the short quiz which followed that exercise, 'ne' expletive was before the subjunctive verb in a dialogue. I don't believe I was wrong with my form of the subjunctive nor the 'ne' expletive.
Some textbook said pire is for abstract noun while mauvais/e is for concrete noun
"Les pommes ? Anne les a ___ mangées."
Isn't it "a mangé"?
Why "ses jambes" instead of "les jambes"?
My understanding was that you used definitive articles, not possesive
Is there any other chance that I could take the level test again?
In the phrase, "curieuses boîtes", how do you know to place curieuses before the noun.
Thanks
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