French language Q&A Forum

I know that ils is used for masculine or mixed masculine and feminine groups and elles is used for feminine groups. But what if there are more feminine than masculine objects such as a group of one man and ten women? Would it then be acceptable to use 'elles' to refer to that group or would I still have to use ils even if only thing is masculine?

In the example, “Achète-t-il des pâtes?”:

“achète” technically ends in a vowel but it ends in a T sound, right? So why is the extra “t” necessary?

I thought if vouloir was used as negative phrase, you didn't use the subjonctif tense...am I wrong?

In the context of this lesson, 'remind [someone] of [someone or something]' means 'put unwittingly [someone] in mind of the subject's resemblance to [someone else or something else]'. The meaning in French, although the grammatical construction is different from English in terms of direct and indirect objects, is the same as this.

But what about the alternative English usage 'remind of' meaning 'cause consciously [someone] to remember to give attention to [a person or thing]'. Often this is expressed in a sentence such as "Jack reminded me that my uncle is coming next week", but could be shortened to "Jack reminded me of [or about] my uncle's visit".

How would the last sentence be translated?

I understand why we use the definite article for one and possessive adjective for the other buy why are they both singular?

your answer "ce qui me plait le plus dans ce métier"

should it not be "ce qui me plais le plus dans ce métier" ?

Je trouve ça difficile écoute quellefois. Comme, parce que à 16h

J'écoute 

Par kes cest heure 

Hello, I am wondering why to use "c´est" instead of "elle est" to translate "she is an angel". Doesn't "c´est" mean "it is", used to describe an object? Can you use "c´est" about a person and why is it better than simply saying "elle est"?

Correct answer given is with ‘nulle part’ at the end. No problem with that but what is wrong with ‘n’importe où’? I’ve looked at the discussions and can’t find a definitive explanation for appropriate use of one over the other. Doesn’t ‘nulle part’ mean nowhere rather than anywhere? Merci as ever for guidance.