Use of être and avoir vs. faire I'm not sure where to put these questions. I did read the discussion about Darbeinet's text, which gives examples of measurements. Three examples used avoir and one used être. It did not use faire. (I am not familiar with Darbeinet, just trying to make sense of the discussions.)
The answer was "that Darbeinet's text is a bit out of date and to native speakers (members of the language team and relatives ;-) ), 'faire' is definitely the verb to use here."
The example that used être (from Darbeinet) was "Ce bâtiment est long de trente mètres." I don't see how this differs in construction from "La porte est large d'un mètre", one of two correct answers in a Kwiz.
So être is out of date? But we are being taught être as well as faire? Quoi?
Of the three examples using avoir (from Darbeinet) one is "Ce bâtiment a trente mètres de long." Larousse online has the example "ici la rivière a 2 km de large-- here the river is 2 km wide". (in definition of large) Those two examples seem similar to each other in construction.
A question about "Ce gouffre a trente mètres de profondeur" from a month ago was answered with ---
/Bonjour Tecla,
This question has already been discussed : "faire" is definitely the verb to use./
So, Larousse, also, is wrong/out of date in using avoir as the verb here?
I am truly confused. Reading the linked discussion was part of that confusion.
As 'they' say, halp!
Why in the above translation has the word 'gotten' been used? Although acceptable in USA + Canada, it is regarded as bad grammar in the UK? I had got....... ought to be the translation.
I just took a quiz with this question:
Si vous _____________________, signons ce contrat !
(If you agree, let's sign this contract!)
I selected: "êtes d'accord" and the Kwizbot said that I was partly right and that "étes d'accord" was also correct. I'm new to this course, but have never seen this alternate accent for êtes and didn't see it mentioned anywhere in the learning page for the lesson. Is this really a common and acceptable way to write the word?
Thanks,
Mark
Thank you
Best regards
Eugene
J'ai vu recemment la chanson avec video 'Sacre Charlemagne' sur YouTube. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AH-a22xge-c (1964). Ca me semblait une chanson charmante mais aussi un peu bizarre!
(Desole, mon ordinateur ne fait pas les accents)
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Why is the future perfect used in this sentence: "Mais personne mieux que Claude Nougaro n'aura incarné..."?
Would present tense not work here?
I'm not sure where to put these questions. I did read the discussion about Darbeinet's text, which gives examples of measurements. Three examples used avoir and one used être. It did not use faire. (I am not familiar with Darbeinet, just trying to make sense of the discussions.)
The answer was "that Darbeinet's text is a bit out of date and to native speakers (members of the language team and relatives ;-) ), 'faire' is definitely the verb to use here."
The example that used être (from Darbeinet) was "Ce bâtiment est long de trente mètres." I don't see how this differs in construction from "La porte est large d'un mètre", one of two correct answers in a Kwiz.
So être is out of date? But we are being taught être as well as faire? Quoi?
Of the three examples using avoir (from Darbeinet) one is "Ce bâtiment a trente mètres de long." Larousse online has the example "ici la rivière a 2 km de large-- here the river is 2 km wide". (in definition of large) Those two examples seem similar to each other in construction.
A question about "Ce gouffre a trente mètres de profondeur" from a month ago was answered with ---
/Bonjour Tecla,
This question has already been discussed : "faire" is definitely the verb to use./
So, Larousse, also, is wrong/out of date in using avoir as the verb here?
I am truly confused. Reading the linked discussion was part of that confusion.
As 'they' say, halp!
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