French language Q&A Forum

A quiz question was as follows:

Je te donne ________ de mon salaire. ——> I give you half my salary.

I answered “une moitié”,  but the correct answer was “la moitié”.

Why is this the case? I understood from the lesson that these two are interchangeable. 

Even if they are not interchangeable, I would think:

-  “une moitié de mon salaire” ——> one half of my salary

Whereas:

-  “La moitié de mon salaire” ——> the half of my salary

Thanks 

In a recent test I was asked to complete the following; Yves a les yeux…….( Yves has brown eyes). I wrote Yves a les yeux bruns which was deemed incorrect; why? My Harraps French English Dictionary assures me that either brun or marron can be used in this context.

I can say, "I am bringing two bottles of wine there" I believe like this:
J'y apporte deux bouteilles de vin.

Can I say, "I am bringing two of them there" like this?
J'y en apporte deux.

Or would it be:
J'en y apporte deux.

Or would you use a completely different construction?

thanks, Scott

I noticed that the recording of "deux plus deux égal quatre" has no liason after the second deux but "deux plus deux égale quatre" does. Is it just a coincidence or is there a difference because of égal/égale?  I find it difficult to know when to use liason before a vowel and when not to and can't find anything that really explains it.

The above is quoted from the lesson.  I wonder if the "past participle" now serves as an adjective and that is the reason for the agreement, not the use of the verb être per se.  If that is the case it seems to me to be a much easier way to understand the construction of the passive voice.  

The explanation seems to focus on the verb être with the use of bold for être rather than the subject agreement, so it's easy to get confused.  (I tried to use "bold" here but it didn't work, so pls. see statement as it appears in the lesson.)

Going back to an earlier lesson which had this sentence in a quiz question:

Je vais être dévoré par les morts vivants

I went round and round trying to figure out what part of speech dévoré was.  I finally decided it was being used as an adjective (but I admit I am not !00% sure).   Hence my question above.

see that question below (not from me)

Conjugate verbs in the near future in French using aller + infinitive (Le Futur Proche)

See below.   The use of être plus the past participle should be discussed/explained...just say'n :))Non ! Je ________ dévoré par les morts vivants !No! I'm going to be devoured by the living dead!HINT: Conjugate être (to be) in Le Futur Proche