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14,020 questions • 30,407 answers • 882,383 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,020 questions • 30,407 answers • 882,383 learners
When combining conjugations like ne jamais and ne nulle part, do we keep the nulle part rule of going at the end of the clause?
Example:
Je n'ai jamais nulle part allé
Ou
Je n'ai jamais allé nulle part
I never went anywhere
Today, I got the same question: "Sarah ________ la salade à Michel," but this time the answer was "passe," with no reflexive pronoun!
The same question can NOT have different answers. Please explain, this is driving me crazy!
Q1) Isn't this correct?
Vous m'y avez parlé. [You spoke to me there.] (Parler à)
Q2) Isn't the scenario of Indirect Object Pronoun/COI with Adverbial Y possible? If not, why??
Q3) And similarly, vice-versa the scenario of Direct Object Pronoun/COD with Adverbial En is also not possible?? Hence, is it a rule that it will always be [COD + y] and [COI + en] in Double Pronouns??
Are they correct depending on whether 'en' means it (singular) or them (plural)?
1. Pierre m'en a offert. / Pierre m'en a offerte. [Pierre offered some of it/them to me.](If COD/Direct Object - 'en' - it/them)
2. J'ai mangé des chocolats. --> J'en ai mangés. [I ate them.]
Are agreement rules applicable in Passé Composé for 'en' when it is a Direct Object Pronoun ?
Why does this sentence change to the vous form of you?
I’m wondering what pesant is grammatically in the sentence "Ces informations valent leur pesant d'or !" - a gerund? Or is pesant d’or a fixed expression?
Why is it "Mes fils ont toujours adoré cette tradition" ? If the tradition is ongoing with no start and finish should not the 'imparfait' be used here?
I learnt about the inverted question form and the inverted verb forms of quoi and how they work. Quoi becomes que or qu'. Additionally, I learnt about est-ce que and it uses the question word first and then the inverted verb and then the subject.
Why is the answer to this: Sarah ________ la salade à Michel.
se passe as opposed to passe?
Isn't this a simple act of passing something, as in the first example, "passer quelque chose"? I understood that it only needed the reflexive pronoun for something happening or someone doing without something. Can you enlighten me?
Thanks.
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