French language Q&A Forum

Why is  "Ils ont été" and not "Ils étaient" ? These answers for were baffle me. They have been - They were, or are they interchangeable ?

I don't understand why we use "j'en ai pour" ? What's the reason behind this?

"In the Languedoc region" was translated as "dans le Launguedoc".  I followed this example to translate "in the Gironde region" but it was marked wrong and the correct translation provided was "en Gironde".  In some cases a name is used with an article - as above, for example, or also in this exercise "la presqu'ile du Medoc" but "la plage.. de Port-Leucate".  Are there rules about how to refer to different places? Thank you.

This is not a question about the subjunctive mood, but the sentence was an exercise of it, so I ask my question here.

What is the role of "en" in the following sentence: "Bien que je veuille me reposer, je n'EN ai pas le temps !" Does it mean "I don't have the time for it."? Could you also just write "Bien que je veuille me reposer, je n'ai pas le temps !" without the "en"?

Pourquoi manque-t-il l’article au nom de Haïti ?

"Il faudra qu'on se refasse ça à l'occasion". I am unclear about the function of "se" in this sentence. Would it also be correct to say "Il faudra qu'on refasse ça à l'occasion" to mean "We'll have to do this again sometime"? 

In English, "I have nothing more to say to you" has a slightly different meaning to "I have nothing to say to you any more" - I guess because the second stresses you’re not going to speak again and the first that you’ve nothing left to say. Is there a way to make the distinction in French ?

Je pense que les hints (? en francais) sont pour la dernière éxércise?

Re:  

Le temps des deux parties m'a confuse dans cette phrase. 

Il y a un exemple ou on utiliserait le subjonctif passe comme ca: