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My French teacher just discussed that words such as Intelligent, imprimer, australien, fin.... All utilise a short "ang" nasal sound rather like what is used with the english word 'sang'. (The phonetic sound is identified with a symbol resembling epsilon with a squiggly over it- ɛ̃). Listening to your recordings it sounds a lot like "ung" to me. Are both pronunciations OK? On Google it sounds like your usual recording (ung-), but on reverso it sounds just like 'ang-ɛ̃'. Clarification would be so welcome.
Consider...
1. "Paul should have left earlier."
As I understand it, both these sentences would be translated as "Paul aurait dû partir plus tôt", even though, in English, there is a difference in meaning. Is there a better way to translate #2 to convey the meaning that Paul was compelled to leave?
When I did my quiz, with 'Ben _______ son train presque tous les jours.', the answer box was a drop-down question. When I got my results, this question was Almost There. The answer showed two different answers! If a question is drop-down, you can't select two answers at once, can you?
Scratching my head as usual on this subject. This time concerning "et j'ai joué de moins en moins". Since I was doing this (playing) less and less, surely that means I was continuing to do it in the past, if I'd only done it once as a completed action, I ipso facto couldn't have been doing it "less and less"! - hence, I thought, "Je jouais de moins en moins". Why is it Passé composé? (Will I EVER get my head round this particular issue: it's always the thing that trips me up!)
'When only very few rights were granted to women' is translated as 'où l'on n'octroyait que très peu de droits à la gente féminine'. But in the dictionary it seems to say that this noun is spelt 'gent' without the 'e'; while 'gente' is a form of the adjective meaning 'gentil'
Why cette année instead of cet an?
The English translation of this ' By the time he's had his lunch, you can have a shower' is agreed by 50 of my fb friends to be ungrammatical and not something an english person would say. The wrong answer - the time it takes him to have lunch, you could have a shower, is much more what we would say, although we'd say 'In the time..' and you might say'In the time it takes him to have lunch, you can have a shower' although could is better. Could someone please pay attention to this. It feels wrong consistently having to select a fake English answer.
In this example, why is the answer not sortir?
Thank you
Je ________ de chez moi.
‘Moutaine’ is the word for ‘mitten’ on Google Translate. Why is ‘moufle’ the correct answer here?
My French teacher just discussed that words such as Intelligent, imprimer, australien, fin.... All utilise a short "ang" nasal sound rather like what is used with the english word 'sang'. (The phonetic sound is identified with a symbol resembling epsilon with a squiggly over it- ɛ̃). Listening to your recordings it sounds a lot like "ung" to me. Are both pronunciations OK? On Google it sounds like your usual recording (ung-), but on reverso it sounds just like 'ang-ɛ̃'. Clarification would be so welcome.
Consider...
1. "Paul should have left earlier."
2. "Paul should have had to leave earlier."As I understand it, both these sentences would be translated as "Paul aurait dû partir plus tôt", even though, in English, there is a difference in meaning. Is there a better way to translate #2 to convey the meaning that Paul was compelled to leave?
When I did my quiz, with 'Ben _______ son train presque tous les jours.', the answer box was a drop-down question. When I got my results, this question was Almost There. The answer showed two different answers! If a question is drop-down, you can't select two answers at once, can you?
Scratching my head as usual on this subject. This time concerning "et j'ai joué de moins en moins". Since I was doing this (playing) less and less, surely that means I was continuing to do it in the past, if I'd only done it once as a completed action, I ipso facto couldn't have been doing it "less and less"! - hence, I thought, "Je jouais de moins en moins". Why is it Passé composé? (Will I EVER get my head round this particular issue: it's always the thing that trips me up!)
'When only very few rights were granted to women' is translated as 'où l'on n'octroyait que très peu de droits à la gente féminine'. But in the dictionary it seems to say that this noun is spelt 'gent' without the 'e'; while 'gente' is a form of the adjective meaning 'gentil'
Why cette année instead of cet an?
The English translation of this ' By the time he's had his lunch, you can have a shower' is agreed by 50 of my fb friends to be ungrammatical and not something an english person would say. The wrong answer - the time it takes him to have lunch, you could have a shower, is much more what we would say, although we'd say 'In the time..' and you might say'In the time it takes him to have lunch, you can have a shower' although could is better. Could someone please pay attention to this. It feels wrong consistently having to select a fake English answer.
In this example, why is the answer not sortir?
Thank you
Je ________ de chez moi.
I'm leaving my place.‘Moutaine’ is the word for ‘mitten’ on Google Translate. Why is ‘moufle’ the correct answer here?
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