French language Q&A Forum

1. Can I use "empirer" instead of exacerber or aggraver in the sentence "ce qui ne faisant qu'exacerber les problèmes ..."? 

2. Why do we use faire ... instead of the word itself? 

I don't understand why these are both correct, but one's in the passe compose and the other is in the imparfait.

En 2004, j'avais de l'argent.
In 2004, I had money.

En 1815, Napoléon a perdu la bataille de Waterloo.
In 1815, Napoleon lost the battle of Waterloo.

Is it because Napoleon only lost the battle one time, but we can assume I had money for the whole of 2004.

Maybe it's just on my end but the "avoir" example has "eu" and "pris" examples under it. 

I think the audio was too fast for me. Please make it a bit slow as I cannot understand.

Hope it will help me.

When I used , it was marked out in favor of , which I never hear i conversation. However, at the end of the exercise, I see enlever used when the text is played back. Looks like an oversight or self-contradiction you can easily repair.

 Looking for more detail on these verbs, I couldn't find ANY French verb conjugation sites that conjugated verbs like AMUSER, MAQUILLER, REPOSER, or even DÉCÉDER with ÊTRE. They all use AVOIR. Why is that?

Tu es reste' enferme' ____________ une heure.  I put "pendent" which should have been "durant".  I have reviewed the lesson and can't find any distinction between pendent and durant.  What am I missing?

In the last question I chose to use sera and not va être and I wonder why this was considered to be incorrect. I know the difference and if being rigid yes, it's wrong but of course some people will say "will be" rather than "going to be" so some latitude would be helpful.