French language Q&A Forum

When n’avoir plus de is followed by countable object. Is the object always in plural form?

Most often in the use of pqp, one action precedes another. Sometimes the action the plus-que-parfait precedes will not be explicit, but will be implied in the sentence:

Je m'étais trompé de date cette fois-là.I'd got the date wrong that time.Vous vous étiez amusés cette nuit-là?Had you had fun that night?Both these examples, weakly imply, that you were mistaken and had fun in a prior time.  I find this difficult to think I would be able to discern the need for the pqp in constructing a sentence. Can you please explain this more in depth? Thank you, Ken

How do I add lesson pages and Kwiz answers to a notebook?

I thought subject pronouns ("vous" in this case) would make it "ce que"?

The rule I've been using before was if it's a verb/reflexive then it's ce qui and if it's a noun/pronoun then it's ce que, yet here we see "ce qui" followed by "vous". Super confused, sorry if this is obvious

Which one is correct ( pour que tu pars or pour que tu partes ?) just as it is nothing else surrounding those 4 words.

Thank you 

Hi. 

In the recent subjunctive test one of the ‘blanks’ involved an answer to be inserted  after ‘à moins que’.

I filled in the ‘blank’ to include ‘ne’ before the verb . ie ‘ne soit’.

I was taught that after ‘à moins que’ you must add ‘ne’ before the subjunctive verb.

My test result marked my answer as incorrect. 

The answer did not include ‘ne’. Which is correct please ?

For the last sentence "je les ai vus descendre de leur voiture", I wanted to say "je les ai vus en descendant". Would my version basically mean "I saw them while I was getting out of the car"? Or can you use en descendant to refer to the aunt and uncle in this case? Thanks in advance.