French language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
15,045 questions • 32,615 answers • 1,029,041 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
15,045 questions • 32,615 answers • 1,029,041 learners
In this sentence why is it not 'était fournie', to agree with 'une paire'?:
une paire de boules Quiès étaient fournies
"this classic French dessert" = "ce dessert classique français" and "the melted lemon butter" =" le beurre fondu à citron" How do I know which adjective goes first?
How come, in the final sentence of this exercise, the past subjunctive is not used following "Rien que"? Instead, it was the passé composé.
In the phrase, "...il faut défendre ses opinions", why do the French use 'ses'? I would have expected 'vos', i.e. it is necessary to defende YOUR opinions. Is it simply the way the French express this allusion to others?
I'm a little confused at the distinction between "beacoup de" and "de nombreux". I used "beacoup de" in an answer and got it wrong, but I believe it was grammatically correct. The answers in the Q&A help a little, but I think it would also help to have this mentioned in the lesson text.
Why there isn't liaison between ''et elle''? (Claire est assez petite et elle a le taint mat)
I'm being very picky with the punctuation here (but then again the little robot is often very picky about my punctuation, especially in the dictations haha). In the first sentence there should be a comma (and not a full-stop) in between "un petit déjeuner différent" and "ce qui peut rendre les matins un peu compliqués". (The corresponding English sentence did have the comma here.)
"In the first half of the week" the acceptable translation is Dans (or durant or pendant) la première moitié though above it says "Durant". However, "In the second half of the week", "Dans" and "moitié are both marked as incorrect with "moitié" is replaced by "partie". Could you please explain the differences as I don't understand them.
I've read all the comments here and in the related links, several times.
It seems the rule be stated as, there's NO gender/number agreement of the participle when there is a direct object following the verb.
Ça vous dit ?
Find your French level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your French level