Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone.Hello,
I am having trouble understanding why "Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone." is the correct orthography.
Bescherelle explains that there are three cases (https://www.bescherelle.com/faq/comment-accorder-le-participe-passe-dun-verbe-pronominal/):
1. Lorsque le verbe est essentiellement pronominal (c’est-à-dire qu’il se construit toujours avec un pronom réfléchi), le participe passé s’accorde avec le sujet.
2. Lorsque le verbe est occasionnellement pronominal, le participe passé s’accorde avec le COD si celui-ci est placé avant le verbe.
3. Il ne s’accorde pas s’il n’y a pas de COD ou si celui-ci est placé après le verbe.
Obviously case 1 does not apply because parler normally takes a direct object. But everyone seems to put "Ils se sont parlé" into case three. How is "se" not the direct object? They're talking to each other. Why is it "Ils se sont brûlés." but "Ils se sont parlé."? These two seem like they should be in the same category to me. Is it just that "se parler" is a special case, or am I completely misunderstanding?
Sorry if this was already answered somewhere but I haven't found it in my searches if so.
Thank you for your help.
This comment regards the content rather than the French language practice, so not really that important. The lack of tiebreaks in the deciding set was the case when this exercise was first published a couple of years ago, but now in 2022, all 4 Grand Slam tournaments have standardised and are using tiebreaks in the final set (they go to 10 points rather than to 7 points like in the other sets).
Hi, in
“Depuis mon plus jeune âge, qu'on soit à la maison ou chez des amis”
what triggered the subjunctive (i.e. “soit”). Was it the “depuis … que” structure?
Pourquoi on a écrit du marathon et pas au marathon?
Can we say nous étions censés .... instead of nous devions arriver....?
Hello,
I am having trouble understanding why "Ils se sont parlé hier soir au téléphone." is the correct orthography.
Bescherelle explains that there are three cases (https://www.bescherelle.com/faq/comment-accorder-le-participe-passe-dun-verbe-pronominal/):
1. Lorsque le verbe est essentiellement pronominal (c’est-à-dire qu’il se construit toujours avec un pronom réfléchi), le participe passé s’accorde avec le sujet.
2. Lorsque le verbe est occasionnellement pronominal, le participe passé s’accorde avec le COD si celui-ci est placé avant le verbe.
3. Il ne s’accorde pas s’il n’y a pas de COD ou si celui-ci est placé après le verbe.
Obviously case 1 does not apply because parler normally takes a direct object. But everyone seems to put "Ils se sont parlé" into case three. How is "se" not the direct object? They're talking to each other. Why is it "Ils se sont brûlés." but "Ils se sont parlé."? These two seem like they should be in the same category to me. Is it just that "se parler" is a special case, or am I completely misunderstanding?
Sorry if this was already answered somewhere but I haven't found it in my searches if so.
Thank you for your help.
For 'Elle va avoir soixante ans demain', can we also say 'Elle aura soixante ans demain'? Merci!
Bescherelle punctuates haïr in the passé simple as: je haïs, tu haïs, il haït, etc., whereas you insist on: j'hais, tu hais, il hais, etc. Can they both be correct?
Is it true that unlike mentioned in this lesson, Faux/Fausse can also come after the noun? And when it does come after, it has to mean "wrong". (..instead of "fake/false")?
- J'ai tapé un code faux et ma carte est bloquée.
- Malgré quelques réponses fausses, j'ai réussi l'examen.
Hi there, just wondering why we don't need to accord the 'grande forme' as 'grandes formes' with the attackers (plural)
"et nos attaquants ne sont pas en grande forme."
Thanks!
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