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14,078 questions • 30,489 answers • 887,783 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,078 questions • 30,489 answers • 887,783 learners
Thanks so much for letting us know about the Aubracs. Most Americans no nothing about them. Their courage and skill in working for the Resistance is inspiring. On our Veterans Day, it is yet another story of the people who sacrificed much to overcome tyranny. It is much appreciated!
Hello! I'm confused about the sentence: "Pour que tous les habitants comprennent, le roi François Ier décide en 1539 .... " If the English translation takes place in the past tense (the king François decided), why does the phrase seem to be conjugated in the present tense? Why not "le roi François Ier a décidé?" Merci!
All of this is in the present (with the exception of one other passe compose (a dish that i've tasted) & one subjunctive). Why is the sentence "I really feel like I am travelling to the Roaring Twenties" translated using passe compose?
My first thought was that the narrator in this sentence moved into a memory, hence the past--that is, she once HAD that impression when in Paris. But, the same could be said for other sentences: "What I like above all, (it) is the relaxed atmosphere . . " It seems all of these sentences relate an ongoing feeling or attitude toward La brasserie La Coupole, so I don't understand why the passe compose is used in this sentence.
Why in the above translation has the word 'gotten' been used? Although acceptable in USA + Canada, it is regarded as bad grammar in the UK? I had got....... ought to be the translation.
Est-ce qu'il y a une différence entre "futur" et "avenir"?
J'ai appris "avenir" en tout cas, et "futur" pour dire "le futur simple" par exemple.
I am confused by this example:
"I haven't left France for three years:" "Je n'ai pas quitté la France depuis trois ans."
The lesson says "we use PC because the negation indicates the action wasn't done during the entirety of that past period. BUT PC is used to express actions which were completed or finished in the past.
This example shows it WAS NOT completed, so why PC and not imparfait??
Thank you.
ce, cet,ces
cette,ces
is this correct?
'qu'il m'a donnée pour mon treizième anniversaire.' - the link you provide with this question, 'special cases of past participle agreement with avoir' describes that, in passé composé with avoir, the past participle must agree with the object when the verb is preceded by a direct object, but also explicitly states that the rule does not apply to indirect objects. Is not 'me' in this case an indirect object (he gave it to me)?
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