French language Q&A Forum

Is there any difference in the meaning or tone of “comment ça se fait” compared to “pourquoi”? In English, we sometimes say “how come” rather than “why” to avoid sounding curt or accusatory. Thank you!

I've read all the comments here and in the related links, several times.

It seems the rule be stated as, there's NO gender/number agreement of the participle when there is a direct object following the verb.

Ça vous dit ?

I wrote cannelle  for cinnamon and was marked wrong  and changed to canelle, but in the dictionary it is spelt cannelle. Which is correct??

Could someone explain the use of the definite article "les" before "deux tiers" in the following example from this lesson:

Les invités ont mangé les deux tiers du gâteau.  The guests have eaten 2/3 of the cake.

Thank you.

Le de voir en cinq phrases exprimer ce qu'il faut faire

You define L'imparfait as being about things that happened repeatedly in the past or past habits. Yet "You had eaten cereal this morning" is neither a repeated action nor a past habits, yet is expressed in L'imparfait... "tu avais mangé des céréales ce matin"? Sounds more like your definition of le passé composé - a single event in a defined timeframe. I get that the grammar is correct.  What I'm questioning is your definitions.