French language Q&A Forum

Very interested by Chris’s use of “depuis” in “Je regarde depuis de belles collines”. Does using “depuis” impact a slight change in the English translation such as “I have been watching from beautiful hills” or am I overthinking it.

I don't understand "être fin a prêt à" and I can't find a translation.

In this sentence where is the "you" as the sentence in English was "or we could give you a refund"? why are these English words just being omitted and how are we meant to know when to omit them?

Q1) Isn't this correct?

Vous m'y avez parlé. [You spoke to me there.]     (Parler à)

Q2) Isn't the scenario of Indirect Object Pronoun/COI with Adverbial Y possible? If not, why?? 

Q3) And similarly, vice-versa the scenario of Direct Object Pronoun/COD with Adverbial En is also not possible?? Hence, is it a rule that it will always be [COD + y] and [COI + en] in Double Pronouns??

HI,

My friend and I were wondering who would be correct. 

She said: The sentence would be vous venez à hurt heures ce soir?

But, I told her the sentence should be Vous venez à vingt-deux ce soir. Since it would be the 24 hour clock for 8pm. Would I be correct?

Thanks

Nicole

Is it simply the case that "Comment il se fait que..." is not idiomatic? Or do French people sometimes say it (rightly or wrongly)?

je ferai gagner du temps à tout le monde - What's the expression here? Because I don't understand why "À" is used here?