French language Q&A Forum

For the very first sentence, I used "formidable" instead of "excellent" and this was not accepted as correct. Is this word out of fashion? Or just used in certain contexts? Thanks for your help!

I do not understand why se faire is used in the case.

Nothing is being done to or for - rembourser.

Je lirai jusqu'à ce que je sois trop fatiguée. Why is fatiguee feminine. Do you know something about the reader that we don't, or am i missing something?

D'abord, ils ont pris des feuilles de papier rouge, orange et jaune,

I'm struggling to see why rouge and jaune are singular. 

I know it is correct, for example : des feuilles de papier blanc = white sheets of paper.

Can anyone explain with a simple rule?

I think basically the point is the colours agree with the material, (papier= unaccountable, singular noun in this context), not with the "sheets".

Is there a general rule I can apply , perhaps about en/de + a material ?

I'm guessing it's something like this:

When describing what an object is made of, it is always treated as a singular noun ?

Thanks, Paul.

Hi,

" D'ailleurs, ça me rappelle que Paul m'avait prêté un livre passionnant que j'ai toujours chez moi ! - Tu ne les as pas revus depuis tout ce temps ? - Non, et du coup, je n'ai pas encore pu le lui rendre ! "

In this sentence I put "je ne suis pas encore arrivé à le lui rendre !" which I think works as well?

Nick

Why isn’t the answer dans Le?

Me suis__________________ cours de danse 

I noted in the quick lesson that it should be dans la if it is specific and en if it is general. Cours de danse seems specific, but I got the answer wrong. 

The phrase 'Don’t let it get you down' is generally translated into French as 'Ne te laisse pas abattre'. But, literally, the phrase appears to mean 'Don't let yourself cut down'. Wouldn't better ways to say it in French be 'Ne le laisse pas t'abattre' or 'Ne te laisse pas être abattu'?

Are there any other phrases like this, where the active voice is translated as passive?

[And why is my question suddenly centre justified?]

I think I put "au sud de France"... I'm translating directly from English, but is there a reason why "in the south of France" becomes "du sud de la France"

Mettez au negative: Issac prend des croissants avec du beurre.

So is the answer, Issac ne prend pas de croissants avec de beurre ?

Is it simply the case that "Comment il se fait que..." is not idiomatic? Or do French people sometimes say it (rightly or wrongly)?