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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,914 questions • 32,388 answers • 1,011,511 learners
Elderly Brit here. I would use the English past perfect in both halves of a sentence like "By the time I had finished eating, he had drunk a whole bottle" - when he’s drunk the bottle, I’ve already finished eating, a completed action.
Without wanting to split hairs, is the concept of the French "le temps que" slightly different to "by the time that" or does it just take (to my mind!) a less logical tense?
Hello.. having problems getting the pronunciation of this phrase.. hearing it as sache and not getting the "iez" of the subjunctive
Il faut que vous sachiez vos leçonsposition of prochain relative to nouns
Why is "de vernis" used in this sentence and "du vernis" in the following sentence ? I thought it was a masculine noun, ie du vernis
J'ai écrit 'leur prouesse'. Est-ce qu'il y a une différence phonétique entre le singulier et le pluriel?
Is "au courant" invariable, or does it agree with the gender and number of the person?
I don't want to be pedantic but the sentence "A few months ago, I worked from my house for three weeks. ." the best answer was "Il y a quelques mois, j'ai travaillé de chez moi pendant trois semaines." the final para however reads "Il y a quelques mois, j'ai fait du télétravail pendant trois semaines." (A few months ago, I was teleworking for three weeks.) I realise there are many ways of saying the same thing but this was not given as the best option and seems to be different to the text being translated. It might be time for me to have a break!
Why does visite sometimes have an acute accent on the end, other times it doesn't?
The English sentence, "...know that nearly 150 nudist beaches are dotted along the French coastline." uses dotted. The translation uses 'jalonner'. I was wondering if 'parsemer' could be used in this context.
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