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14,228 questions • 30,841 answers • 907,248 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,228 questions • 30,841 answers • 907,248 learners
Bonjour,
Above in the explanation, it is mentioned that l'imparfait has no clear beginning or end. But when I attempted the Fill-in-the-blanks Mon jour férié (Passé Composé vs Imparfait), there was a sentence - J’étais encore en pyjama vers 13h, (which is given as the correct answer). Whereas I had written, " J'ai encore été en pyjama vers 13h, and this answer was given as incorrect. But I don't understand, the end time is given here, (vers 13h). So why can't we select Passé composè?
Merci!
' never going to bed angry' should be surely present tense as they are still doing it?
On est très proches, ma sœur et moi. On est gentils.
Here we have est with proches/gentils. Is it a general rule?
In the exercise "I don't know this author" English present tense, is translated as "je ne connaissais pas" French Imparfait? Is that correct?
My husband, who is French, is adamant that 'avoir' is not used with apparu. Is it that this is a regional usage (eg Quebec v France or even South of France v Paris where he's from)? Or is it just uncommon? Otherwise, like many a native speaker, he could simply be mistaken!
I’m not familiar with this use of "valoir" and was expecting a causative construction like "faire recevoir" - can someone kindly help me with a reference?
Also the end of the first sentence "in the women's right struggle" UK English would usually have "rights" in the plural, as in French.
In the translation of, "I've always been fascinated by French high fashion, of which Yves Saint-Laurent is one of the most iconic figures.", do we use l'une instead of l'un because of the agreement with the 'la figure' ?
Surely for cars that are "theirs" that is plural and should be "les leurs"?
Should there not be an apostrophe "their's" to denote a single person and therefore allow "la leur"?
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