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14,677 questions • 31,799 answers • 963,867 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,677 questions • 31,799 answers • 963,867 learners
In the test, I got the following question
"Elle a mangé tout le gâteau !" means:
- She is eating all the cake!
- She ate all the cake!
- She is going to eat all the cake!
- She has eaten all the cake!
- She had eaten eat all the cake!
Could you please explain why we you believe 'she has eaten all the cake' is correct but not 'she had eaten all the cake'? How would we say she had eaten all the cake in French and why is this not passé composé?
Il joue au golf. Why au , not du? Thanks
bonjour mes amis,
est-ce qu'on peut utiliser « à côté de » comme un sinonyme pour « avec » ? Ou c'est seulement pour la distance ?
par ex.: C'est notre livre, on va l'étudier à côté d'une bonne méthode pédagogique.
Merci bcp d'avance.
I’ve been studying French church architecture this week and had thought I understood that the saint themself is written with no hyphen, but if their name is used for a road, church, town etc, it becomes hyphenated. For example, Saint Denis for the person and Saint-Denis for the basilica or commune. So I was surprised in this exercise to see the archangel spelt Saint-Michel.
I also noticed that sauvé and sauvée are both accepted for Orléans - presume either is ok here?
“On vous appellera quand on arrive” would be considered an acceptable, if casual sentence, as opposed to “on vous appellera quand on arrivera” which is a bit clunky, no?
Please explain why the plural is used at the end of this sentence dont les trois bâtiments entourant une charmante place centrale participent d'une atmosphère de petit hameau des plus pittoresques.
Also cabane is a female noun, shouldn’t it be surplombantes in the phrase below
l'une des deux cabanes surplombant le domaine
Thank you very much
Instead of "Il voulait que je vienne à Pâques" can one say "Il me voulait venir à Pâques"? What's the difference?
In the bottom half of the quick lesson it says:
"- the more elegant
Comment se fait-il que ... ?-> Note the use of inverted question form to emphasise the elegant structure."
Did you leave out 'cela' between 'Comment' and 'se fait-il'?
I was reading a short piece and came across this sentence. I understand everything up until peuvent recevoir. I know what it's suppose to mean however why after que, we use peuvent instead of saying
Il y a au moins trois labels de qualité que les communes français peuvent recevoir .
Is there any difference in meaning between the use of faire and etre contextually? Or, are they freely interchangeable?
I guess my main concern is, is there an example of a time when faire would be chosen over etre and vice versa?
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