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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,939 questions • 32,431 answers • 1,015,081 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,939 questions • 32,431 answers • 1,015,081 learners
Why is it "Je me brosse LES dents" instead of "MES dents"? If they are MY teeth, why not "mes dents"? Or, if maybe I have a child I'm teaching good dental hygiene, "Je te brosse tes dents."
I was not well
Yesterday I was not well
She was absent
Yesterday she was absent
These sentences are case of passe compose or imparfait
The rule concerning agreement of "tout" in different situations confuses me. Why isn't it written "toute à l'heure" so that tout agrees with the gender of l'heure? Thanks.
I found this explanation in Le Figaro but it does not explain why there is no agreement: https://www.lefigaro.fr/langue-francaise/expressions-francaises/2019/01/23/37003-20190123ARTFIG00047--toute-a-l-heure-ne-faites-plus-la-faute.php
Why not include the meanings of "vase" as they change according to gender? La vase is mud, whereas le vase is a vase.
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