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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,236 questions • 30,821 answers • 905,848 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,236 questions • 30,821 answers • 905,848 learners
Is there a way to review all my answers at the end of the exercise? To see an overall comparison of what I wrote vs what the answers are.
“au-dessus de l’assiette “. When I read this I picture the cutlery floating over the plate. “Dessus de l’assiette” I can imagine the cutlery sitting above the plate. Pouvez-vous m’expliquer pourquoi on utilise au-dessus vs dessus dans cette phrase.
What does "ne plus savoir ou donner la tete" mean in English? Looks like "I no longer knew where to lay my head."
I thought adverbs can only modify a verb, an adjective, or another adverb.
How come the adverb 'bientôt' is placed before the nound 'les vacances"?
So I wanted to test my proficiency at the A0 level, so I chose the Kwiz A0 option from my focus tab. In there, there was a question about Louvre, where I put "C'est quoi" as the answer, and it got marked incorrect. The answer was supposed to be "Qu'est-ce que c'est". But coming back to this lesson, I couldn't figure out the difference between either of the phrases, or any difference regarding when and where they should be used. So I'm just a bit confused right now. Would like some help.
Do they both mean the same thing? And if so, why does one of them change depending on whether you are a man or a woman, and one of them doesn't?
I have two separate questions regarding the same example
The first is…why do you use “sa tête” to mean “his face”?
The second is…I am sure that there are many colloquial ways or common ways to express “should have” using the verb avoir in its conditional conjugated form when it’s not followed by “dû”, but is it actually proper French grammar? For instance, in one of the above examples, it reads: “Tu aurais vu sa tête quand je suis apparu devant lui.” Its translation is “You should have seen his face when I appeared in front of him.” Possibly contextually it translates better to should than would. Perhaps if the sentence was “ Tu aurais vu sa tête, si tu avais été là.” Then it’s a true conditional statement-You would have seen his face (condition) if you had been there. So perhaps I’ve answered my question because this really isn’t a conditional statement However, I like rules, I like things to follow those rules (The Container Store is one my happy place-quote from Emily in Paris). I also realize that as I write this, the English language is known for not always following grammatical rules in one sense or another (although I can’t think of any because it makes sense to me as a native English speaker, so please forgive my hypocrisy). Please help me understand when avoir in its conditional form means should when not followed by dû.
nous sommes brossé is incorrect, should be nous sommes brossés
Je me confuse sur cette exemple: "il va manquer une chaise à ton oncle." I get "there will be a chair missing" but how does "à ton oncle" (which I read as "to your uncle") compute as "your uncle will be missing a chair"?
First of all, is it "Vas-tu retourner à faire tes devoirs" or "Vas-tu retourner faire tes devoirs".
Then, can respond with "Oui, j'y retourne."
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