French language Q&A Forum

In the last sentence, why does 'de' precede amener?  ie. why not "mon but est amener les gens..."

The dialogue 'A Lover's Phone Call', has the following - "Non, c'est toi ! Allez, on compte jusqu'à trois !" Why is the third person 'Allez' used? The person is addressed as toi.  And if it was meant to be 'let's count to three, wouldn't it be Allons?

quelle luxe ou quel luxe ?

Il faut que... tu réfléchisses à ce que cette amitié t'apporte réellement.

Pourquoi le subjonctif ici?

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I'm reading https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/plus/, and there's either an error or an ambiguity.  In the sections of plus used as a comparative or superlative adverb, it mentions liaising, but in the section for its use as a negative adverb, it says "In negative constructions, plus is always pronounced [ply]", with no mention of liaisons, which to me means that you should never liaise in the negative.  It gives the example of "Il n’est plus en France", which based on that rule, would mean you neither pronounce the S nor liaise it to "en".  I asked about that example on reddit, and several native French speakers said that liaising was optional, with some saying it depends whether formal or informal.  So, which is it?

J'aime le fait que certains des Européens peuvent se moquer de ce problème.

I think this distinction is changing, even amongst ardent defenders of the purity of French

my friend sent me a message “bonjour mon kiki”. Can I ask what “mon kiki” means in this context 

and when do you use    malgre lui